Iqbal and the Free Exercise Clause
Brownstein, Alan
aebrownstein at ucdavis.edu
Wed May 27 10:51:06 PDT 2009
Good question. There is certainly some range of opinions on whether a law that requires a lot of individualized applications or exceptions is sufficiently general for Smith purposes. Also, legislative accommodations of religion that do not reach all faiths may not be intentionally discriminatory. I also think it is possible to be perceived as creating a "religious gerrymander" without deliberately intending to do so.
Alan Brownstein
From: religionlaw-bounces at lists.ucla.edu [mailto:religionlaw-bounces at lists.ucla.edu] On Behalf Of ArtSpitzer at aol.com
Sent: Wednesday, May 27, 2009 10:33 AM
To: religionlaw at lists.ucla.edu
Subject: Re: Iqbal and the Free Exercise Clause
When would a law that's not neutral or not generally applicable not also be intentionally discriminatory? Can a legislature negligently or unknowingly enact a law that's not neutral or not generally applicable?
Art Spitzer
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