Can religious and secular courts exist in the same nation?

[ArtSpitzer at aol.com]

In a message dated 11/19/08 2:38:57 PM, laycockd at umich.edu writes:

> ... This is not a problem if both parties agree, after the dispute has 
> arisen, to go to the religious court, and if both parties abide by the judgment.  
> That is just a mechanism for voluntary dispute resolution; the government is 
> not involved.  But even in this situation, if the religious court grants a 
> divorce that the state recognizes, we have gone beyond voluntary dispute 
> resolution. 
> 
Why is it more problematic for the state to recognize a divorce decreed by a 
religious authority than it is for the state to recognize a marriage decreed 
by a religious authority?   (Not a rhetorical question.)



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