Recommendation...

RJLipkin at aol.com RJLipkin at aol.com
Fri Sep 1 17:32:00 PDT 2006


 
If mere action without divine  condemnation does not count as God's approval, 
then what does? There is nothing  circular is seeking an independent 
conception of how one ascertains God's  approval. Must it be a specific statement of 
approval or disapproval? What  counts as a reasonable inference? Indeed, which 
textual references are  legitimate as the bases of such inferences? Examples 
might be a good starting  point. But asking for a theory or an analytic 
conception of how one ascertains  God's approval is surely a paradigmatically 
legitimate approach of scholars on a  List such as ours.

 
        For example, please  consider the following "At most, several people 
are polygamists, and God does  not directly judge or condemn their polygamy." 
My question has been consistently  why doesn't this count as approval?  And if 
it does not, why not?  Quoting chapter and verse doesn't answer this analytic 
question. For scholars, I  submit, only an independent explication of how one 
answers these questions  will do.
 
Bobby

Robert Justin Lipkin
Professor of Law
Widener  University School of Law
Delaware
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