Recommendation...
RJLipkin at aol.com
RJLipkin at aol.com
Fri Sep 1 17:32:00 PDT 2006
If mere action without divine condemnation does not count as God's approval,
then what does? There is nothing circular is seeking an independent
conception of how one ascertains God's approval. Must it be a specific statement of
approval or disapproval? What counts as a reasonable inference? Indeed, which
textual references are legitimate as the bases of such inferences? Examples
might be a good starting point. But asking for a theory or an analytic
conception of how one ascertains God's approval is surely a paradigmatically
legitimate approach of scholars on a List such as ours.
For example, please consider the following "At most, several people
are polygamists, and God does not directly judge or condemn their polygamy."
My question has been consistently why doesn't this count as approval? And if
it does not, why not? Quoting chapter and verse doesn't answer this analytic
question. For scholars, I submit, only an independent explication of how one
answers these questions will do.
Bobby
Robert Justin Lipkin
Professor of Law
Widener University School of Law
Delaware
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