proselytization

[RJLipkin at aol.com]

Both Webster's  Third International and the Shorter OED define "proselytize"  
as having special application to religious contexts, and indicates that the 
term  is not always used pejoratively.  Further, any religion embracing the  
commitment to convert others should be able to use the term in good faith. Why  
isn't the statement "Some (if not all) Christian religions encourage (if  not 
require) proselytizing, while Judaism frowns on proselytizing." If a  person's 
religion encourages or requires her to proselytize, how can  the term only 
"apply to the other guy"?
 
Bobby
 
Robert Justin  Lipkin
Professor of Law
Widener University School of  Law
Delaware
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