RFRA and exclusion of antidiscrimination law

[Michael McConnell]

I am surprised at the claim that the least restrictive means test is
something different and distinct from the compelling interest test. I
have always taught that the two are part and parcel of the same
thing. If a measure is not the least restrictive means for
accomplishing the government's objective, how can enforcement of that
measure be "necessary" to achievement of a compelling governmental
interest?
-- Michael McConnell (U of Utah)