reducing the power of the Senate

[MARK STEIN]

Would it violate Article V if the Constitution were amended so that a bill needs only a submajority of votes in the Senate (say 31%) if passed by a majority of the House?  Or what if the Constitution were amended so that the Senate can only delay legislation passed by the House?  In other words, does the reference to "the Senate" in Article V incorporate the powers granted to the Senate and place them, as well as state representation, beyond amendment?

Mark
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