jle at case.edu
Wed Oct 4 12:03:31 PDT 2006
Perhaps I'm not understanding the ordinance, but why aren't the relevant
precedents Moore v. City of East Cleveland, which limits the government's
ability to define families for zoning purposes, and Village of Belle Terre
v. Boraas, which upholds restrictions on the number of unrelated persons who
may live in the same dwelling unit? Moore had racial undertones, but the
Court treated it as a due process case. Belle Terre was not a race case but
a "student" or "commune" regulation, wasn't it?
Jonathan L. Entin
Professor of Law and Political Science
Case Western Reserve University
jle at case.edu (e-mail)
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