Racial Classification?

[Jonathan Entin]

Perhaps I'm not understanding the ordinance, but why aren't the relevant
precedents Moore v. City of East Cleveland, which limits the government's
ability to define families for zoning purposes, and Village of Belle Terre
v. Boraas, which upholds restrictions on the number of unrelated persons who
may live in the same dwelling unit? Moore had racial undertones, but the
Court treated it as a due process case. Belle Terre was not a race case but
a "student" or "commune" regulation, wasn't it?

 

Jonathan L. Entin

Professor of Law and Political Science

Case Western Reserve University

216-368-3321 (voice)

216-368-2086 (fax)

jle at case.edu (e-mail)

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