Help with Dames & Moore

[Eric Segall]

In Dames & Moore, the Court made the following statements: "the United
States has repeatedly exercised its sovereign authority to settle the
claims of its nationals against foreign countries.Though those settlements
have sometimes been made by treaty, there has also been a longstanding
practice of settling such claims by executive agreement . . . ." Are these
statements accurate? Prior to Dames & Moore, had the United States in fact
settled claims by U.S. citizens (without their consent) against foreign
countries via executive agreement?

Thanks for the help.

Eric Segall
GSU College of Law